Question details
I worked as Dept. Director at a Spanish Hotel from Jan 08-Jul 09. My employment was in the Hotel full-time, but was hired/paid through a consulting firm they employed (and still employ) to manage the operations of that department. I have now been offered a position (Dec 2010) in a similar Managerial/Director job within the Hotel's parent company in the USA but I have not got a US work permit, (I am Spanish). Can I qualify for the L1-blanket visa of the Company, based on my history with their consultant? Do I need to be employed by Hotel in Spain again prior to applying for the L1 visa?
Interesting situation. Not having researched this issue, I am guessing, the only way you can qualify for the L-1 is if you can establish that the hotel in Spain was your "true" employer in that they controlled you, even though your salary was paid by the consulting company.
First of all; I would like to thank the entire Team member who has worked in my case. Special Kudos goes to my case manager 'Aruna Marthi'; she did absolutely fabulous job to get me through this whole process. The time, and efforts you guys have given me the only reason of this case successful. Can you believe it, I got my whole process completed within 6 months and I-485 got approved in less than 2 months.
Thanks again for all of your efforts.
Regards:
BK